All 599 Amateur Extra questions
E1 Commission Rules
- E1A01Why is it not legal to transmit a 3 kHz bandwidth USB signal with a carrier frequency of 14.348 MHz?
- E1A02When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?
- E1A03What is the highest legal carrier frequency on the 20-meter band for transmitting a 2.8 kHz wide USB data signal?
- E1A04May an Extra class operator answer the CQ of a station on 3.601 MHz LSB phone?
- E1A05Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?
- E1A06What is the required transmit frequency of a CW signal for channelized 60 meter operation?
- E1A07What is the maximum power permitted on the 2200-meter band?
- E1A08If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?
- E1A09Except in some parts of Alaska, what is the maximum power permitted on the 630-meter band?
- E1A10If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?
- E1A11What licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US-registered vessel in international waters?
- E1B01Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?
- E1B02Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for digital voice or slow-scan TV transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?
- E1B03Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?
- E1B04What must the control operator of a repeater operating in the 70-centimeter band do if a radiolocation system experiences interference from that repeater?
- E1B05What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?
- E1B06Which of the following additional rules apply if you are erecting an amateur station antenna structure at a site at or near a public use airport?
- E1B07To what type of regulations does PRB-1 apply?
- E1B08What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?
- E1B09Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?
- E1B10What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?
- E1B11What does PRB-1 require of state and local regulations affecting amateur radio antenna size and structures?
- E1C01What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?
- E1C02Which of the following apply to communications transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?
- E1C03How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) before operating on the 2200-meter or 630-meter band?
- E1C04What is an IARP?
- E1C05Under what situation may a station transmit third party communications while being automatically controlled?
- E1C06Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?
- E1C07What notifications must be given before transmitting on the 630- or 2200-meter bands?
- E1C08What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?
- E1C09What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz?
- E1C10What is the maximum mean power level for a spurious emission below 30 MHz with respect to the fundamental emission?
- E1C11Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US?
- E1C12In what portion of the 630-meter band are phone emissions permitted?
- E1D01What is the definition of telemetry?
- E1D02Which of the following may transmit encrypted messages?
- E1D03What is a space telecommand station?
- E1D04Which of the following is required in the identification transmissions from a balloon-borne telemetry station?
- E1D05What must be posted at the location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 kilometers of the Earth's surface?
- E1D06What is the maximum permitted transmitter output power when operating a model craft by telecommand?
- E1D07Which of the following HF amateur bands include allocations for space stations?
- E1D08Which VHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?
- E1D09Which UHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?
- E1D10Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations of space stations, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator of the station?
- E1D11Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?
- E1D12Which of the following amateur stations may transmit one-way communications?
- E1E01For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?
- E1E02Who is tasked by Part 97 with maintaining the pools of questions for all US amateur license examinations?
- E1E03What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?
- E1E04What is required to be accredited as a Volunteer Examiner?
- E1E05What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?
- E1E06Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?
- E1E07What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?
- E1E08To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?
- E1E09What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?
- E1E10What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?
- E1E11What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?
- E1F01On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?
- E1F02What privileges are authorized in the US to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the government of Canada?
- E1F03Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?
- E1F04Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?
- E1F05Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?
- E1F06Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station?
- E1F07When may an amateur station send a message to a business?
- E1F08Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?
- E1F09Which of the following cannot be transmitted over an amateur radio mesh network?
- E1F10Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?
- E1F11Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?
E2 Operating Procedures
- E2A01What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?
- E2A02Which of the following is characteristic of an inverting linear transponder?
- E2A03How is an upload signal processed by an inverting linear transponder?
- E2A04What is meant by the “mode” of an amateur radio satellite?
- E2A05What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?
- E2A06What are Keplerian elements?
- E2A07Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?
- E2A08Why should effective radiated power (ERP) be limited to a satellite that uses a linear transponder?
- E2A09What do the terms “L band” and “S band” specify?
- E2A10What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?
- E2A11What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?
- E2A12What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an amateur radio satellite?
- E2B01In digital television, what does a coding rate of 3/4 mean?
- E2B02How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?
- E2B03How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?
- E2B04How is color information sent in analog SSTV?
- E2B05Which of the following describes the use of vestigial sideband in analog fast-scan TV transmissions?
- E2B06What is vestigial sideband modulation?
- E2B07Which types of modulation are used for amateur television DVB-T signals?
- E2B08What technique allows commercial analog TV receivers to be used for fast-scan TV operations on the 70-centimeter band?
- E2B09What kind of receiver can be used to receive and decode SSTV using the Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) protocol?
- E2B10What aspect of an analog slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?
- E2B11What is the function of the vertical interval signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?
- E2B12What signals SSTV receiving software to begin a new picture line?
- E2C01What indicator is required to be used by US-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control and the remote transmitter is located in the US?
- E2C02Which of the following file formats is used for exchanging amateur radio log data?
- E2C03From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?
- E2C04Which of the following frequencies can be used for amateur radio mesh networks?
- E2C05What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?
- E2C06During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of SSB or CW activity?
- E2C07What is the Cabrillo format?
- E2C08Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the Logbook of The World (LoTW)?
- E2C09What type of equipment is commonly used to implement an amateur radio mesh network?
- E2C10Why do DX stations often transmit and receive on different frequencies?
- E2C11How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup?
- E2C12What indicates the delay between a control operator action and the corresponding change in the transmitted signal?
- E2D01Which of the following digital modes is designed for meteor scatter communications?
- E2D02What information replaces signal-to-noise ratio when using the FT8 or FT4 modes in a VHF contest?
- E2D03Which of the following digital modes is designed for EME communications?
- E2D04What technology is used for real-time tracking of balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters?
- E2D05What is the characteristic of the JT65 mode?
- E2D06Which of the following is a method for establishing EME contacts?
- E2D07What digital protocol is used by APRS?
- E2D08What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?
- E2D09What type of modulation is used by JT65?
- E2D10What does the packet path WIDE3-1 designate?
- E2D11How do APRS stations relay data?
- E2E01Which of the following types of modulation is used for data emissions below 30 MHz?
- E2E02Which of the following synchronizes WSJT-X digital mode transmit/receive timing?
- E2E03To what does the "4" in FT4 refer?
- E2E04Which of the following is characteristic of the FST4 mode?
- E2E05Which of these digital modes does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?
- E2E06What is the length of an FT8 transmission cycle?
- E2E07How does Q65 differ from JT65?
- E2E08Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?
- E2E09Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length character coding?
- E2E10Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth?
- E2E11What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?
- E2E12How do ALE stations establish contact?
- E2E13Which of these digital modes has the highest data throughput under clear communication conditions?
E3 Radio Wave Propagation
- E3A01What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by EME?
- E3A02What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?
- E3A03When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?
- E3A04In what direction does an electromagnetic wave travel?
- E3A05How are the component fields of an electromagnetic wave oriented?
- E3A06What should be done to continue a long-distance contact when the MUF for that path decreases due to darkness?
- E3A07Atmospheric ducts capable of propagating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature?
- E3A08When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a linear ionized region is formed at what region of the ionosphere?
- E3A09Which of the following frequency ranges is most suited for meteor-scatter communications?
- E3A10What determines the speed of electromagnetic waves through a medium?
- E3A11What is a typical range for tropospheric duct propagation of microwave signals?
- E3A12What is most likely to result in auroral propagation?
- E3A13Which of these emission modes is best for auroral propagation?
- E3A14What are circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?
- E3B01Where is transequatorial propagation (TEP) most likely to occur?
- E3B02What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?
- E3B03At what time of day is transequatorial propagation most likely to occur?
- E3B04What are “extraordinary” and “ordinary” waves?
- E3B05Which of the following paths is most likely to support long-distance propagation on 160 meters?
- E3B06On which of the following amateur bands is long-path propagation most frequent?
- E3B07What effect does lowering a signal's transmitted elevation angle have on ionospheric HF skip propagation?
- E3B08How does the maximum range of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?
- E3B09At what time of year is sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?
- E3B10What is the effect of chordal-hop propagation?
- E3B11At what time of day is sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?
- E3B12What is chordal-hop propagation?
- E3B13What type of polarization is supported by ground-wave propagation?
- E3C01What is the cause of short-term radio blackouts?
- E3C02What is indicated by a rising A-index or K-index?
- E3C03Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A-index or K-index is elevated?
- E3C04What does the value of Bz (B sub z) represent?
- E3C05What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that charged particles from the Sun will cause disturbed conditions?
- E3C06How does the VHF/UHF radio horizon compare to the geographic horizon?
- E3C07Which of the following indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?
- E3C08Which of the following is the space-weather term for an extreme geomagnetic storm?
- E3C09What type of data is reported by amateur radio propagation reporting networks?
- E3C10What does the 304A solar parameter measure?
- E3C11What does VOACAP software model?
- E3C12Which of the following is indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum?
E4 Amateur Practices
- E4A01Which of the following limits the highest frequency signal that can be accurately displayed on a digital oscilloscope?
- E4A02Which of the following parameters does a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?
- E4A03Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products generated by an SSB transmitter?
- E4A04How is compensation of an oscilloscope probe performed?
- E4A05What is the purpose of using a prescaler with a frequency counter?
- E4A06What is the effect of aliasing on a digital oscilloscope when displaying a waveform?
- E4A07Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge?
- E4A08Which of the following is used to measure SWR?
- E4A09Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?
- E4A10Which trigger mode is most effective when using an oscilloscope to measure a linear power supply's output ripple?
- E4A11Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?
- E4B01Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?
- E4B02What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?
- E4B03Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?
- E4B04Which S parameter represents input port return loss or reflection coefficient (equivalent to VSWR)?
- E4B05What three test loads are used to calibrate an RF vector network analyzer?
- E4B06How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?
- E4B07What do the subscripts of S parameters represent?
- E4B08Which of the following can be used to determine the Q of a series-tuned circuit?
- E4B09Which of the following can be measured by a two-port vector network analyzer?
- E4B10Which of the following methods measures intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?
- E4B11Which of the following can be measured with a vector network analyzer?
- E4C01What is an effect of excessive phase noise in an SDR receiver's master clock oscillator?
- E4C02Which of the following receiver circuits can be effective in eliminating interference from strong out-of-band signals?
- E4C03What is the term for the suppression in an FM receiver of one signal by another stronger signal on the same frequency?
- E4C04What is the noise figure of a receiver?
- E4C05What does a receiver noise floor of -174 dBm represent?
- E4C06How much does increasing a receiver's bandwidth from 50 Hz to 1,000 Hz increase the receiver's noise floor?
- E4C07What does the MDS of a receiver represent?
- E4C08An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level?
- E4C09Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high IF for a superheterodyne HF or VHF communications receiver?
- E4C10What is an advantage of having a variety of receiver bandwidths from which to select?
- E4C11Why does input attenuation reduce receiver overload on the lower frequency HF bands with little or no impact on signal-to-noise ratio?
- E4C12How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?
- E4C13What is reciprocal mixing?
- E4C14What is the purpose of the receiver IF Shift control?
- E4D01What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?
- E4D02Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver?
- E4D03What creates intermodulation interference between two repeaters in close proximity?
- E4D04Which of the following is used to reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by a nearby transmitter?
- E4D06What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?
- E4D07Which of the following reduces the likelihood of receiver desensitization?
- E4D08What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?
- E4D09What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?
- E4D10What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?
- E4D11Why are odd-order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other products?
- E4D12What is the link margin in a system with a transmit power level of 10 W (+40 dBm), a system antenna gain of 10 dBi, a cable loss of 3 dB, a path loss of 136 dB, a receiver minimum discernable signal of -103 dBm, and a required signal-to-noise ratio of 6 dB?
- E4D13What is the received signal level with a transmit power of 10 W (+40 dBm), a transmit antenna gain of 6 dBi, a receive antenna gain of 3 dBi, and a path loss of 100 dB?
- E4D14What power level does a receiver minimum discernible signal of -100 dBm represent?
- E4E01What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW signals?
- E4E02Which of the following types of noise can often be reduced by a digital noise reduction?
- E4E03Which of the following types of noise are removed by a noise blanker?
- E4E04How can conducted noise from an automobile battery charging system be suppressed?
- E4E05What is used to suppress radio frequency interference from a line-driven AC motor?
- E4E06What type of electrical interference can be caused by computer network equipment?
- E4E07Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?
- E4E08What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multiconductor cable?
- E4E09What undesirable effect can occur when using a noise blanker?
- E4E10Which of the following can create intermittent loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference?
- E4E11What could be the cause of local AM broadcast band signals combining to generate spurious signals on the MF or HF bands?
- E4E12What causes interference received as a series of carriers at regular intervals across a wide frequency range?
- E4E13Where should a station AC surge protector be installed?
- E4E14What is the purpose of a single point ground panel?
E5 Electrical Principles
- E5A01What can cause the voltage across reactances in a series RLC circuit to be higher than the voltage applied to the entire circuit?
- E5A02What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenries, and C is 40 picofarads?
- E5A03What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?
- E5A04What is the magnitude of the impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?
- E5A05What is the result of increasing the Q of an impedance-matching circuit?
- E5A06What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?
- E5A07What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?
- E5A08What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?
- E5A09How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated?
- E5A10What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenries, and C is 10 picofarads?
- E5A11What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?
- E5A12What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?
- E5A13What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit?
- E5B01What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage or to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?
- E5B02What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?
- E5B03How is impedance in polar form converted to an equivalent admittance?
- E5B04What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?
- E5B05What is the effect on the magnitude of pure reactance when it is converted to susceptance?
- E5B06What is susceptance?
- E5B07What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?
- E5B08What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 300 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 100 ohms?
- E5B09What is the relationship between the AC current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?
- E5B10What is the relationship between the AC current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?
- E5B11What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?
- E5B12What is admittance?
- E5C01Which of the following represents pure capacitive reactance of 100 ohms in rectangular notation?
- E5C02How are impedances described in polar coordinates?
- E5C03Which of the following represents a pure inductive reactance in polar coordinates?
- E5C04What type of Y-axis scale is most often used for graphs of circuit frequency response?
- E5C05What kind of diagram is used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency?
- E5C06What does the impedance 50 - j25 ohms represent?
- E5C07Where is the impedance of a pure resistance plotted on rectangular coordinates?
- E5C08What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance?
- E5C09When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what do the axes represent?
- E5C10Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400-ohm resistor and a 38-picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?
- E5C11Which point in Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and an 18-microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?
- E5C12Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and a 19-picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?
- E5D01What is the result of conductor skin effect?
- E5D02Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above?
- E5D03What is the phase relationship between current and voltage for reactive power?
- E5D04Why are short connections used at microwave frequencies?
- E5D05What parasitic characteristic causes electrolytic capacitors to be unsuitable for use at RF?
- E5D06What parasitic characteristic creates an inductor's self-resonance?
- E5D07What combines to create the self-resonance of a component?
- E5D08What is the primary cause of loss in film capacitors at RF?
- E5D09What happens to reactive power in ideal inductors and capacitors?
- E5D10As a conductor's diameter increases, what is the effect on its electrical length?
- E5D11How much real power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100-ohm resistor in series with a 100-ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?
- E5D12What is reactive power?
E6 Circuit Components
- E6A01In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material?
- E6A02Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?
- E6A03Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?
- E6A04What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?
- E6A05How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor (FET) compare with that of a bipolar transistor?
- E6A06What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?
- E6A07Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?
- E6A08What is the term for the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a bipolar junction transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?
- E6A09What is a depletion-mode field-effect transistor (FET)?
- E6A10In Figure E6-1, which is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?
- E6A11In Figure E6-1, which is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?
- E6A12What is the purpose of connecting Zener diodes between a MOSFET gate and its source or drain?
- E6B01What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?
- E6B02Which characteristic of a Schottky diode makes it a better choice than a silicon junction diode for use as a power supply rectifier?
- E6B03What property of an LED's semiconductor material determines its forward voltage drop?
- E6B04What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?
- E6B05What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch?
- E6B06Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode?
- E6B07What causes a junction diode to fail from excessive current?
- E6B08Which of the following is a Schottky barrier diode?
- E6B09What is a common use for point-contact diodes?
- E6B10In Figure E6-2, which is the schematic symbol for a Schottky diode?
- E6B11What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?
- E6C01What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator?
- E6C02What happens when the level of a comparator's input signal crosses the threshold voltage?
- E6C03What is tri-state logic?
- E6C04Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?
- E6C05Which of the following digital logic families has the lowest power consumption?
- E6C06Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?
- E6C07What best describes a pull-up or pull-down resistor?
- E6C08In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?
- E6C09What is used to design the configuration of a field-programmable gate array (FPGA)?
- E6C10In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?
- E6C11In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inversion)?
- E6D01What is piezoelectricity?
- E6D02What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?
- E6D03Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect?
- E6D04Why are cores of inductors and transformers sometimes constructed of thin layers?
- E6D05How do ferrite and powdered iron compare for use in an inductor core?
- E6D06What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor?
- E6D08Which of the following materials has the highest temperature stability of its magnetic characteristics?
- E6D09What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of a transistor HF amplifier?
- E6D10What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?
- E6D11Which type of core material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil?
- E6D12What causes inductor saturation?
- E6E01Why is gallium arsenide (GaAs) useful for semiconductor devices operating at UHF and higher frequencies?
- E6E02Which of the following device packages is a through-hole type?
- E6E03Which of the following materials supports the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?
- E6E04Which is the most common input and output impedance of MMICs?
- E6E05Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?
- E6E06What characteristics of MMICs make them a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?
- E6E07What type of transmission line is often used for connections to MMICs?
- E6E08How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC?
- E6E09Which of the following component package types have the least parasitic effects at frequencies above the HF range?
- E6E10What advantage does surface-mount technology offer at RF compared to using through-hole components?
- E6E11What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits?
- E6E12Why are DIP through-hole package ICs not typically used at UHF and higher frequencies?
- E6F01What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?
- E6F02What happens to photoconductive material when light shines on it?
- E6F03What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?
- E6F04What is the photovoltaic effect?
- E6F05Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?
- E6F06Which of these materials is most commonly used to create photoconductive devices?
- E6F07What is a solid-state relay?
- E6F08Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid-state circuits that control 120 VAC circuits?
- E6F09What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?
- E6F10What is the most common material used in power-generating photovoltaic cells?
- E6F11What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?
E7 Practical Circuits
- E7A01Which circuit is bistable?
- E7A02What is the function of a decade counter?
- E7A03Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?
- E7A04How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 16?
- E7A05Which of the following circuits continuously alternates between two states without an external clock signal?
- E7A06What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?
- E7A07What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?
- E7A08What logical operation does an OR gate perform?
- E7A09What logical operation is performed by a two-input exclusive NOR gate?
- E7A10What is a truth table?
- E7A11What does “positive logic” mean in reference to logic devices?
- E7B01For what portion of the signal cycle does each active element in a push-pull, Class AB amplifier conduct?
- E7B02What is a Class D amplifier?
- E7B03What circuit is required at the output of an RF switching amplifier?
- E7B04What is the operating point of a Class A common emitter amplifier?
- E7B05What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?
- E7B06What is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?
- E7B07Which of the following is the likely result of using a Class C amplifier to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?
- E7B08Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers?
- E7B09What is characteristic of an emitter follower (or common collector) amplifier?
- E7B10In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?
- E7B11In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?
- E7B12What type of amplifier circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?
- E7C01How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network's input and output?
- E7C02What is the frequency response of a T-network with series capacitors and a shunt inductor?
- E7C03What is the purpose of adding an inductor to a Pi-network to create a Pi-L-network?
- E7C04How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?
- E7C05Which filter type has ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?
- E7C06What are the characteristics of an elliptical filter?
- E7C07Which describes a Pi-L network?
- E7C08Which of the following is most frequently used as a band-pass or notch filter in VHF and UHF transceivers?
- E7C09What is a crystal lattice filter?
- E7C10Which of the following filters is used in a 2-meter band repeater duplexer?
- E7C11Which of the following measures a filter's ability to reject signals in adjacent channels?
- E7D01How does a linear electronic voltage regulator work?
- E7D02How does a switchmode voltage regulator work?
- E7D03What device is used as a stable voltage reference?
- E7D04Which of the following describes a three-terminal voltage regulator?
- E7D05Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator operates by loading the unregulated voltage source?
- E7D06What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-2?
- E7D07What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-2?
- E7D08What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-2?
- E7D09How is battery operating time calculated?
- E7D10Why is a switching type power supply less expensive and lighter than an equivalent linear power supply?
- E7D11What is the purpose of an inverter connected to a solar panel output?
- E7D12What is the dropout voltage of a linear voltage regulator?
- E7D13Which of the following calculates power dissipated by a series linear voltage regulator?
- E7D14What is the purpose of connecting equal-value resistors across power supply filter capacitors connected in series?
- E7D15What is the purpose of a step-start circuit in a high-voltage power supply?
- E7E01Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone signals?
- E7E02What is the function of a reactance modulator?
- E7E03What is a frequency discriminator?
- E7E04What is one way to produce a single-sideband phone signal?
- E7E05What is added to an FM speech channel to boost the higher audio frequencies?
- E7E06Why is de-emphasis used in FM communications receivers?
- E7E07What is meant by the term “baseband” in radio communications?
- E7E08What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer?
- E7E09What occurs when the input signal levels to a mixer are too high?
- E7E10How does a diode envelope detector function?
- E7E11Which type of detector is used for demodulating SSB signals?
- E7F01What is meant by “direct sampling” in software defined radios?
- E7F02What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?
- E7F03What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal?
- E7F04Which method generates an SSB signal using digital signal processing?
- E7F05How frequently must an analog signal be sampled to be accurately reproduced?
- E7F06What is the minimum number of bits required to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt?
- E7F07What function is performed by a Fast Fourier Transform?
- E7F08What is the function of decimation?
- E7F09Why is an anti-aliasing filter required in a decimator?
- E7F10What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a direct-sampling software defined radio (SDR)?
- E7F11What sets the minimum detectable signal level for a direct-sampling software defined receiver in the absence of atmospheric or thermal noise?
- E7F12Which of the following is generally true of Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filters?
- E7F13What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter?
- E7F14Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response?
- E7G01What is the typical output impedance of an op-amp?
- E7G02What is the frequency response of the circuit in E7-3 if a capacitor is added across the feedback resistor?
- E7G03What is the typical input impedance of an op-amp?
- E7G04What is meant by the term “op-amp input offset voltage”?
- E7G05How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in an op-amp audio filter?
- E7G06What is the gain-bandwidth of an operational amplifier?
- E7G07What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?
- E7G08How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?
- E7G09What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-3 if R1 is 1,000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts DC is applied to the input?
- E7G10What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 1,800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?
- E7G11What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 3,300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?
- E7G12What is an operational amplifier?
- E7H01What are three common oscillator circuits?
- E7H02What is a microphonic?
- E7H03What is a phase-locked loop?
- E7H04How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?
- E7H05How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?
- E7H06Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?
- E7H07How can an oscillator's microphonic responses be reduced?
- E7H08Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators?
- E7H09What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital-to-analog converter, and a low-pass anti-alias filter?
- E7H10What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?
- E7H11What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?
- E7H12Which of the following ensures that a crystal oscillator operates on the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?
- E7H13Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?
E8 Signals and Emissions
- E8A01What technique shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave and its odd harmonics?
- E8A02Which of the following is a type of analog-to-digital conversion?
- E8A03Which of the following describes a signal in the time domain?
- E8A04What is “dither” with respect to analog-to-digital converters?
- E8A05What is the benefit of making voltage measurements with a true-RMS calculating meter?
- E8A06What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in an unprocessed single-sideband phone signal?
- E8A07What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of an unprocessed single-sideband phone signal?
- E8A08Why are direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converters used for a software defined radio?
- E8A09How many different input levels can be encoded by an analog-to-digital converter with 8-bit resolution?
- E8A10What is the purpose of a low-pass filter used at the output of a digital-to-analog converter?
- E8A11Which of the following is a measure of the quality of an analog-to-digital converter?
- E8B01What is the modulation index of an FM signal?
- E8B02How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency?
- E8B03What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency if the highest modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?
- E8B04What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz if the highest modulating frequency is 2 kHz?
- E8B05What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz if the highest modulation frequency is 3 kHz?
- E8B06What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz if the highest modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?
- E8B07Orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM) is a technique used for which types of amateur communication?
- E8B08What describes orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM)?
- E8B09What is deviation ratio?
- E8B10What is frequency division multiplexing (FDM)?
- E8B11What is digital time division multiplexing?
- E8C01What is Quadrature Amplitude Modulation or QAM?
- E8C02What is the definition of symbol rate in a digital transmission?
- E8C03Why should the phase of a PSK signal be changed at the zero crossing of the RF signal?
- E8C04What technique minimizes the bandwidth of a PSK31 signal?
- E8C05What is the approximate bandwidth of a 13-WPM International Morse Code transmission?
- E8C06What is the bandwidth of an FT8 signal?
- E8C07What is the bandwidth of a 4,800-Hz frequency shift, 9,600-baud ASCII FM transmission?
- E8C08How does ARQ accomplish error correction?
- E8C09Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values?
- E8C10How can data rate be increased without increasing bandwidth?
- E8C11What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?
- E8C12What factors affect the bandwidth of a transmitted CW signal?
- E8C13What is described by the constellation diagram of a QAM or QPSK signal?
- E8C14What type of addresses do nodes have in a mesh network?
- E8C15What technique do individual nodes use to form a mesh network?
- E8D01Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference?
- E8D02What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high-speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?
- E8D03Which describes spread spectrum frequency hopping?
- E8D04What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal?
- E8D05What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?
- E8D06What is the advantage of including parity bits in ASCII characters?
- E8D07What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals?
- E8D08What parameter evaluates distortion of an AFSK signal caused by excessive input audio levels?
- E8D09What is considered an acceptable maximum IMD level for an idling PSK signal?
- E8D10What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?
- E8D11What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications?
E9 Antennas and Transmission Lines
- E9A01What is an isotropic radiator?
- E9A02What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.2 dB duplexer loss, and 7 dBd antenna gain?
- E9A03What term describing total radiated power takes into account all gains and losses?
- E9A04Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?
- E9A05What does the term “ground gain” mean?
- E9A06What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and 10 dBd antenna gain?
- E9A07What is the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.8 dB duplexer loss, 1.2 dB circulator loss, and 7 dBi antenna gain?
- E9A08Which frequency band has the smallest first Fresnel zone?
- E9A09What is antenna efficiency?
- E9A10Which of the following improves the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna?
- E9A11Which of the following determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating on HF?
- E9A12How much gain does an antenna have compared to a half-wavelength dipole if it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator?
- E9B01What is the 3 dB beamwidth of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?
- E9B02What is the front-to-back ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?
- E9B03What is the front-to-side ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?
- E9B04What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
- E9B05What type of antenna pattern is shown in Figure E9-2?
- E9B06What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
- E9B07What is the difference in radiated power between a lossless antenna with gain and an isotropic radiator driven by the same power?
- E9B08What is the far field of an antenna?
- E9B09What type of analysis is commonly used for modeling antennas?
- E9B10What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?
- E9B11What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below 10 segments per half-wavelength?
- E9C01What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?
- E9C02What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?
- E9C03What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?
- E9C04What happens to the radiation pattern of an unterminated long wire antenna as the wire length is increased?
- E9C05What is the purpose of feeding an off-center-fed dipole (OCFD) between the center and one end instead of at the midpoint?
- E9C06What is the effect of adding a terminating resistor to a rhombic or long-wire antenna?
- E9C07What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire half-wave folded dipole antenna?
- E9C08What is a folded dipole antenna?
- E9C09Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna?
- E9C10Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna?
- E9C11How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus soil?
- E9C12Which of the following describes an extended double Zepp antenna?
- E9C13How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized antenna vary with increasing height above ground?
- E9C14How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally-polarized antenna mounted above a long slope compare with the same antenna mounted above flat ground?
- E9D01How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic reflector antenna increase when the operating frequency is doubled?
- E9D02How can two linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?
- E9D03What is the most efficient location for a loading coil on an electrically short whip?
- E9D04Why should antenna loading coils have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?
- E9D05Approximately how long is a Yagi's driven element?
- E9D06What happens to SWR bandwidth when one or more loading coils are used to resonate an electrically short antenna?
- E9D07What is an advantage of top loading an electrically short HF vertical antenna?
- E9D08What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?
- E9D09What is the function of a loading coil in an electrically short antenna?
- E9D10How does radiation resistance of a base-fed whip antenna change below its resonant frequency?
- E9D11Why do most two-element Yagis with normal spacing have a reflector instead of a director?
- E9D12What is the purpose of making a Yagi's parasitic elements either longer or shorter than resonance?
- E9E01Which matching system for Yagi antennas requires the driven element to be insulated from the boom?
- E9E02What antenna matching system matches coaxial cable to an antenna by connecting the shield to the center of the antenna and the conductor a fraction of a wavelength to one side?
- E9E03What matching system uses a short length of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?
- E9E04What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma match?
- E9E05What Yagi driven element feed point impedance is required to use a beta or hairpin matching system?
- E9E06Which of these transmission line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter-wave Q-section for matching a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm transmission line?
- E9E07What parameter describes the interaction of a load and transmission line?
- E9E08What is a use for a Wilkinson divider?
- E9E09Which of the following is used to shunt feed a grounded tower at its base?
- E9E11What is the purpose of using multiple driven elements connected through phasing lines?
- E9F01What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?
- E9F02Which of the following has the biggest effect on the velocity factor of a transmission line?
- E9F03Why is the electrical length of a coaxial cable longer than its physical length?
- E9F04What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
- E9F05What is microstrip?
- E9F06What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically 1/2 wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?
- E9F07How does parallel conductor transmission line compare to coaxial cable with a plastic dielectric?
- E9F08Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric coaxial cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?
- E9F09What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
- E9F10What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
- E9F11What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end?
- E9F12What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end?
- E9G01Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?
- E9G02What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?
- E9G03Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?
- E9G04What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?
- E9G05Which of the following is a common use for a Smith chart?
- E9G06On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?
- E9G07On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?
- E9G08How is a Smith chart normalized?
- E9G09What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of designing impedance matching networks?
- E9G10What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?
- E9G11In what units are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?
- E9H01When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?
- E9H02Which is generally true for 160- and 80-meter receiving antennas?
- E9H03What is receiving directivity factor (RDF)?
- E9H04What is the purpose of placing an electrostatic shield around a small-loop direction-finding antenna?
- E9H05What challenge is presented by a small wire-loop antenna for direction finding?
- E9H06What indicates the correct value of terminating resistance for a Beverage antenna?
- E9H07What is the function of a Beverage antenna's termination resistor?
- E9H08What is the function of a sense antenna?
- E9H09What type of radiation pattern is created by a single-turn, terminated loop such as a pennant antenna?
- E9H10How can the output voltage of a multiple-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?
- E9H11What feature of a cardioid pattern antenna makes it useful for direction-finding antennas?
E0 Safety
- E0A01What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod?
- E0A02When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?
- E0A03Over what range of frequencies are the FCC human body RF exposure limits most restrictive?
- E0A04When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?
- E0A05What hazard is created by operating at microwave frequencies?
- E0A06Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) MPE limits at frequencies below 300 MHz?
- E0A07What is meant by “100% tie-off” regarding tower safety?
- E0A08What does SAR measure?
- E0A09Which of the following types of equipment are exempt from RF exposure evaluations?
- E0A10When must an RF exposure evaluation be performed on an amateur station operating on 80 meters?
- E0A11To what should lanyards be attached while climbing?
- E0A12Where should a shock-absorbing lanyard be attached to a tower when working above ground?